Re: German "ge-" before participe perfect

> * The suggestion that German/Dutch ver- might reflect a Verner

variant of

> PIE *per- is mistaken, not only because of the preceding point

(Verner PIE

> *p > PGmc *b), but also because *f- > *v- is the _normal_

development in

> Dutch and German, e.g. in Vater/vader < *p&2té:r, where Verner's law
> necessarily _never_ applied to the first consonant (it's Grimm's

law that

> applies).

Unless you reformulate Verner so that for Dutch, German and Southern
English it also applies to the initial consonant.

> In other words, Piotr's efforts to teach you the effects of Grimm's

and

> Verner's laws have so far been ineffective. But there's always

hope, I

> suppose...
>

I think you should put that type of remarks at the end of a
discussion, not the beginning.

Torsten