Re: [tied] German "ge-" before participe perfect

On Thu, 07 Aug 2003 11:04:25 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
wrote:

>> The only objection I can imagine
>> to a development *kom- > ga- is why we fail to see the same thing
>> in other preverbs, such as ver- (*fer-).
>>
>
>But don't we? At least in Dutch, that 'v' is a voiced f, and since
>the Germans spell it with 'v', not 'f', it is tempting to assume they
>once pronounced it the same way (why else would they need a 'w'?).

The voicing of initial f- > v- and s- > z- in Dutch and German applies to
any initial *f- and *s-, not just to those in preverbs.

Actually, the Verner development one might have expected in the preverb
*per- would have resulted in PGmc. *ber-.


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...