>do you think that, for example, a linguist who would have studied
Indo-European enough >could "speak" with an individual of this
"indo-european tribe", if, he came back in time >7000 years ago? Is the
research in this linguistic field so far as to enable it?
Given that we do not know for certain the pronunciation of the three
laryngeals (if there were three and not two, or four, or twelve), and that
we do not know the pronunciation of the remarkable and unique three-way
systems of stops (T, TH, D), and that we do not know the pronunciation of
the three-way velar contrasts, and that we do not know the exact
pronunciation of the vowel /e/ (or was it /a~&/ ?), then I think we might
have a little difficulty. And that's without the grammar!
Peter