Richard Wordingham wrote:
> If Romanian 'amnar' derives from *egni-, *ogni- 'fire' (though some
> argue that n.gni- is a better fit for the 'fire' word), why does the
> form 'amânar' have an anaptyctic vowel in the middle of the cluster
> -mn-?
.
>
> Richard.
>
Sorry, I forgot to answer here.
amnár (stress on last /a/ as expected because terh suffix bears the
accent)
amânár (the same stress)
The question is good. Why dialectaly is the form "amânar"?
I have to say I am not aware of the meaning of the word "amânar" as
being "amnar". I am aware of the meaning of "amânar" which is the piece
from plough, thus is not related to the first one. But I need some help
here. Maybe one ( MrIacomi, Mr George, Sorin) has better data. In my
region "amânar" is just that part of the plough, and "amnar" is the one
to make the fire with.
Alex