It seems to me that the "linguistic distance" should be the same even if
the "linguistic effort" may be different. It's harder to walk the same
distance uphill than downhill.
The asymmetric "linguistic effort" by itself should not make defining a
"linguistic distance" impossible.
Paul Alesu
> [Miguel] it's easy for a Portuguese-speaker to understand Spanish, but
> for an untrained Spanish-speaker, it's relatively difficult to
> understand Portuguese.
> ----