Re: [tied] eclesia (it was Re: Historical )

On Sat, 14 Jun 2003 14:59:20 +0200, alex <alxmoeller@...> wrote:

>Is is accepted that latin ending "-ia" has given an "-ã" in Rom.

No, it's accepted that -ia gave -ie

>ex.:cersia > cireaSã) and the /i/ was becoming part of the consonant if
>this one was /k/,/g/,/d/,/t/,/s/.

except after palatalizable consonants, where -Cia > -C^a > -C^ã.

>How do you explain phonologicaly the /-ia/ > /-ie/ at the end of the
>word?

Simple Umlaut.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...