Re: a, nu...

From: altamix
Message: 22726
Date: 2003-06-05

m_iacomi wrote:

> ... conveniently forgetting about other Romance derivatives with
> similar meanings and major phonetical difficulties (for instance:
> Albanian substrate "vjedh(ull)" corresponds to Romanian "viezure"
> and the alleged correspondence between Albanian "vjetër" and
> Romanian "bãtrân" with "vje-" <-> "bã-" is just a dream).
>
> Marius Iacomi


Nonsense. In the word viedh(ulle) both languages have had the stress
since the old /e/ became in both /ie/
In the another, the stress is different and thus, in Albanian is /ie/
and in Rom. as expected /ã/ thus , there is nothing strange here, but
perfectly regular. You are tendentiously showing vje ( with the
iotacisation of the /e/) versus romanian "bã" where the /e/ is already
/ã/.Corect is to show vet > Alb "vjet-" and Rom "vãt-"
You know what my teacher said as I did a such trick ? "Sa-ti fie
ruSine":-)))



As for the -anus > ânu :
did his Majesty any linguist tried to explain why Albanian remër,
Romanian "râmlean"?
Why in Old Romanian the word for Rome = Râm?
are tehse words loaned from any language? If yes which one?Greek,
Slavic?
You must agree that Albanian "rem-" from "remër-" and romanian "râm-"
from "râmlean" both meaning "Romans" have both the /e/ there and
no /o/
or /u/ as from Romanus.And these words are _by now way_ loaned from
Latin "romanus" and "Roma".

Mr Iacomi, I guess there is too much wished in this Latin-Romanian
ecuation and too much ommited in Albanian-Romanian relation.In fact
the
relation Albanian-Romanian is this way:

There are "substratual" words of "lost idiom" if:
- the words present in Albanian & Romanian are not to find in other
languages
- the words which are in Albanian & Romanian are not to derive from
other languages

Trough these criteria it was in fact established a very small circle,
trying to find similars words for two villages but not for two folks.
Everything else which could be explained trough Latin, Greek, Slavs
has
been explained as such and a eventualy own evolution was interdicted
ab
initio. Why? Simply, why? Because linguistic was more subiective until
now and there could be just " big culture" as Greek and Romans or "big
numbers" as Slavs.But about this, we have to say thank to Miklosicz.
He
have let a open door saying we have to search more better as him and
to
profite from the work of the people who spended a lot a time on this
topic before us.

cu bine

alex