From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 22575
Date: 2003-06-03
> Jens:No, those are not the facts. Information which we have for 'foot' is
> >I do believe I understand them, I just don't think the analysis is
> >correct. It is hard to specify the underlying vowel of *H3re:g^-s since
> >it never alternates
>
> Sorry, I forgot the *h3-. I'm so used to the old reconstruction of
> *reg- that my mind keeps omitting it. At any rate, *hWreg- doesn't
> need to alternate. We see that *pod- does alternate with *ped-
> as a direct result of accent changes within the paradigm.
>
> Now that fact would almost seem to suggest that *e and *o
> alternate as one vowel, however since we can't claim that *e in
> *hWreg- is the result of accent (since it would have to be
> _unaccented_ in *hWre:gs to comply with the pattern seen with
> *pedos), we are forced to conclude that there _is_ an important
> and undismissable contrast in IE between *e and *o. We must
> conclude that simple C(C)VC- roots themselves can contain BOTH
> *e and *o. Therefore *e and *o are distinct and neither IE, nor its
> immediate ancestor, are monovocalic.
>
> There are of course also *o-presents alongside *e-presents that
> can't be explained by assuming that the two vowels are the
> same!
>
> We can chit-chat about "what if, what if, what if" all we want but
> these are the present facts that suggest that there is a distinction
> until further evidence (not "what-if" scenarios) can contradict this.