Re: [tied] Nominative: A hybrid view

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

>
> IF the definite article is distinct from demonstratives and object
> follows verb, THEN the definite article precedes the noun. IF the
> definite article is distinct from demonstratives and object precedes
> verb, THEN the definite article follows the noun.
>
> (DefArt !~ Dem) & VO => DefArt N; (DefArt !~ Dem) & OV => N DefArt
>
>
> This is consistent with my personal impression that an SOV language
> like Basque has a postixed article, while SVO and VSO languages like
> English or Arabic have a prefixed article.
>

Who says that *so was a definite article? I thought it was an
anaphoric or demonstrative pronoun. Besides, if it was encliticized
to animate nouns in early/pre-PIE, then why would it remain as a
separate word (i.e. Greek definite article 'ho')?

- Rob