[tied] Re: Labiovelar in Latin

"alex_tiscali_dsl" wrote:

> [...] but you can hear them . There is no difference between
> g'inã in DacoRomanian and g'inã in Aromanian, regardless that
> you call this sound " voiced [h].

I don't doubt _you_ aren't able to hear the difference, and proves
are still accumulating your ear is not trained to correctly identify
and recognize some phonemes. This is a matter of serious training
in linguistics and not of home listening of some recorded music.

>> Never said that. Dacoromanian regional [g'] instead of [b] or [v]
>> is just a normal late development which wasn't so much successful.
>> It appears also in Italian dialects, as I already showed (cf.
> Rohlfs) and is not connected with Italian evolution nor with the
>> _different_ Aromanian phenomenon you quoted ignoring the real
>> pronunciation.
>
> How can you prove this is a late development?

Try reading the books you have. Indication: ILR - Rosetti, about
Romanian in XVIth century.

Marius Iacomi