Jens:
>In general terms, IE ablaut is the result of weakenings and lengthenings
>that postdate the creation of the tripartite structure
>of the inflected word. In *p�r-tu-s, *pr-t�w-s 'ford' there is full concord
>between the accent placing and the ablaut, but in *p&2-t�r-m/*p&2-tr-�s
>there is underlying accent on the suffix with
>the neutralized vocalism.
Gee, I wonder why that is... (Apparently nobody gets this yet but
it seems simple and apparent to me.)
Here's a crazy solution I drummed up off the top of my head!
The stem *pertu- ends in a semivowel and *pxter- doesn't, hence
the difference in genitives:
*doru/*dreu-s, *genu/*gneu-s, et cetera ad nauseum
versus
*re:gs/*reg-os, *nepo:t/*nept-os, et cetera ad nauseum
The reason for the "accent movement before all other endings which
formed syllables" that plagues Jens overanalytical brain is simply due to
the penultimate accent rule because suffixes with syllables are
naturally going to shift a penultimate accent over one syllable!
The End.
Why is Jens trying to explain the obvious again? Must be a nervous
twitch.
- gLeN
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