Re: [tied] Hittite preterites

> The [Latin] imperfect subjunctive does have tense reference: It replaces

the

> subjunctive in case the general setting (as, the main clause) is in a past
> tense form. So it makes perfect sense to explain it as a past-tense form
> created to fit a pre-existing subjunctive type.

Precisely the opposite. In the constructions you are referring to, it
shows a non-completed reference in the verb which is subjunctive. Since
there is no way of showing a time reference in a subjunctive, to show a past
reference in that verb, you have to use the completed ("perfect") stem, i.e.
a pluperfect subjunctive.

The same sort of thing applies in conditionals. The imperfect subjunctive
implies a present unreality; to show a past reference, you have to use the
completed stem.

Peter