Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:
> Now let me repeat my question in this new context: If Albanian <daltë>
> derives from *del-, can you present the derivation in some detail? In
> particular, I'd like to see in what way this hypothesis is superior to
> the widespread opinion that <daltë> 'chisel' and <baltë> 'mud' are
> early loans from Slavic (reflecting unmetathesised *dolto, *bolto)
>
> Piotr
In other order one will ask: why the "lb" from slavic was mentained in
Romanians in the loans from Slavic?
If there should have been a form with "lb" then, why the Romanians and
Albanians do not have the "lb" in their words but just the simply form
"dalta"? You maybe will explain that *dolbto went *dolto and just in
that time it happened Albanians and Romanians caught that word. After
they did it, the slavic made the usual metathesis as known, so the word
is "dloto".
The question is, is in South Slavic that word?
I guess you agree, the word could be loaned just from South Slavic.
Let us see:
bulgarians: "dletp"
serbo-croatian: there is just the verb so far I know: "klesati",
"tesati"
In this case Piotr, how could then Romanians and Albanians to get the
word ? Wherefrom? From Russian? From Polish?
regards,
Alex