From: tgpedersen
Message: 20572
Date: 2003-03-31
> At 4:25:00 AM on Saturday, March 29, 2003, tgpedersen wrote:Exactly. Until they needed the Strasbourg oaths, in German and French
>
> >> >> However, we may also note French entirely losing
> >> >> Indo-European declension yet it's not a "creole" and
> >> >> fully IE.
>
> >> > I don't get it. Do you understand 'creole' and 'IE' as
> >> > mutually exclusive? And BTW French is full of Germanic
> >> > loanwords. The Frankish upper class spoke a Germanic
> >> > dialect, so French has passed through the requisite
> >> > sociological conditions for being creolized.
>
> >> No, because there is no break in transmission. A creole
> >> sensu stricto requires such a break.
>
> > Is too. The first written record of French sensu strictu
> > are the Strassburg oaths, pledged by the Frankish kings,
> > which are also the one of the first records of OHG, I
> > believe. Before that time, no French records, only bad
> > Latin.
>
> Accepting for the moment your 'bad Latin', so what? Ogam
> Irish used a very conservative orthography. When the Irish
> started using the Latin alphabet, they rather abruptly
> brought their orthography more or less up to date to reflect
> the Old Irish language. If one judged only by the written
> language, one would imagine a more abrupt change than
> actually occurred. Late Old English orthography was
> conservative compared with the spoken language; many of the
> changes seen in early Middle English are simply orthographic
> recognition of changes that had occurred earlier in the
> spoken language. In Carolingian times the stimulus was
> increasing recognition that the vernaculars were no longer
> just 'bad Latin'. (And even then, the earliest examples of
> Old French were clearly intended for oral presentation; the
> Strassburg Oaths in particular had to be in the vernacular
> in order to serve their purpose.)
>