From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 20274
Date: 2003-03-24
> I wrote:No. The question refers to what directly precedes it, the
> <<To say that the tie is not "necessary" -- that it's not
> 100 out of 100 -- is not scientifically relevant in these
> instances, because the correlation is something like 95
> out of 100 and way beyond the levels of serious
> statistical doubt. And this only means that the rare
> exceptions prove the rule.>>
> "Brian M. Scott" writes:
> <<Does this have a point?>>
> Of course it has a point. You just choose to omit it from
> your reply.
> "Brian M. Scott" writes:No. Please paraphrase accurately or not at all.
> <<Of course if you choose an example in which the
> correlation is known to be good, you'll find that the
> correlation is good.>>
> So, you'd prefer we only look at the cases where the
> correlation is bad.
> And disregard the cases where your statement isYou're working awfully hard to miss the point. My statement
> demonstrably incorrect?
> I also wrote:Then why suggest otherwise? Rhetorical effect?
> <<It should also be noted that if there is no correlation
> between archaeology and language, the whole Pontic-PIE
> theory loses all foundation. Paleolinguistics is entirely
> linked to archaeology. You have no dates or locations for
> horses, wheels, graves, beeches, beavers, etc., without
> archaeology.>>
> "Brian M. Scott" replied:
> <<And this is of course irrelevant, as it deals with a
> completely different type of relationship between
> linguistics and archaeology.>>
> Yes.
> And it is much more dubious. Not only doesI know that you neither understand nor trust comparative
> paleolinguistics seek to correlate archaeology with
> linguistics, it actually attempts to correlate particular
> words in unrecorded languages with archaeology that is
> thousands of years older than any direct evidence of such
> languages.