Steve, you're not focusing. Much of what you say isn't logical.
It's in part because you don't understand what "evidence" really
means which you believe to be only physical (ie: archaeology)
rather than also abstract (ie: logical deduction and comparative
linguistics).
You also suggest in your wording that a lack of evidence should
somehow give one license to propose anything no matter how absurd.
It's as if to say that because no one can prove that unicorns
don't exist, they must therefore exist.
>Who's confused?
You are. This is a linguistics forum not an archaeology forum.
The two studies bleed together because they are humanities but
archaeology isn't the main substantiation for PIE at all because,
as I've already stated, PIE is purely a _linguistic_ entity.
As with IE then, the location of pre-IE at any given time must
be theorized based on linguistic grounds. To question this
methodology is to question the very methodology that IE is
based on.
>But IE is CLEARLY present in the "earliest historical testimony
>of the linguistic state" of Anatolia. AND, for all you know, Hattic and
>Hurro-Urartian were the
>interlopers.
Only a single IE dialect group (namely Anatolian) is centered in
Anatolia while the remainder of IE is found elsewhere. Hattic and
Hurro-Urartian are ONLY attested in Anatolia. The solution is
quite apparent.
>Spanish is more "widespread" in Latin America, and it is an "interloper"
>[...]
First, I never said anything about "widespread". However,
going along these lines, one should note that Spanish is also
present in Europe. Native South American languages however are
not present in Europe in any registerable quantity. If that
doesn't hit you over the head as to which came first, perhaps
you should give up linguistics and pick up a paintbrush.
>There's plenty of room in Anatolia for a lot more than just two
>languages and there always has been.
No need to reiterate the obvious as if this were proof of your
arguement. It flags desperation.
- gLeN
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