From: alex_lycos
Message: 19390
Date: 2003-02-27
----- Original Message -----
From: "S & L" <mbusines@...>
>
> But is clear [at least for me!] that the Hungarian medieval Kingdom
did not
> incorporate the term "BAN" into its social system until the
incorporation of
> the Croatian lands into the Hungarian state [so, after 1102]
I don't know how far would this word sperad within the Hungarian Empire.
I can complete as follow:
I just know ( and maybe wrong) that Transilvanya was never a "banat" and
it has had never a "ban" as ruler. Begining with Arpad, Transylvania was
a voyevodate ( again slavic word as it is supposed ) and it have had
allways a semi-autochtoneus statutus within the Hungarian Empire. Why?
This should be an another story which has nothing with linguistc to do.
Alex