Re: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?

----- Original Message -----
From: "Miguel Carrasquer" <mcv@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Sunday, February 23, 2003 2:58 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] More nonsense: Is English /d/ truely voiced?



> metal vs. medal. See for instance Ladefoged "A course in phonetics",
> p. 55. "Many Americans do not distinguisg between pairs of words
> containing this sound [an alveolar tap/flap], such as "latter,
> ladder". But some maintain a distinction by having a shorter vowel in
> words such as "latter" which have a voiceless consonant in their
> underlying form"

Im mainstream Canadian English <writer> and <rider> the distinction is realised as a difference in the quality of the diphthongs, while the underlying /t/ and /d/ are both realised as [D] (= voiced alveolar tap): ['r&IDr.] vs. [raIDr.], [&I] being the allophone normally used before fortis ["voiceless"] consonants. Similarly <pouter> is [p&UDr.] while <powder> is [paUDr.].

Piotr