While I support the notion that the original
Indo-Aryan tribes migrated into the area of
contemporary India/Pakistan from the north, bringing
with them their speech and culture, I am also
sympathetic to the notion that they did not settle
into a population vacuum, but rather amalgamated with
the locals, thereby creating the historical people of
the Vedas. The contribution of pre-"incoming" elements
to the amalgam is difficult to estimate. It was
probably substantial as to "genes" (if we are to
believe recent studies). The cultural contribution may
also have been fairly significant. I'm not sure as to
the impact on the language, but even if it was minimal
(linguists can tell us if the non-IE aspects of Indic
languages developed later than the Vedic epoch) this
would not prevent the content of what was being
conveyed in a "new" language to be filled with
cultural "localisms".=== Now this notion of an amalgam
between incomers and locals is founded on the analogy
of other situations, and needs additional
substantiation. One such might be the hydronyms and
toponyms of the Vedic area. Is there any evidence that
those of NW India have retained (or demonstrate)
non-IE characteristics? To any extent?==== I also have
a curious little passage on which I would appreciate
the opinion of our Vedic experts. In RV 1.30.9 Indra
(in the Griffith transl.) is described as the "hero of
our ancient homeland" ("anu pratnasya ankaso"). Where
"Anu" is explained as a "non-Aryan" (pre-Indo-Aryan?)
designation. Would it be too bold to see this as an
indication of "fusion" (with Indra being identified
with some preceding "local" deity?)
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