Re: [tied] Why are Horses Vedic Again?

Indic, as I understand it is found in four areas

1 India
2 the Mitanni loans
3 north of the Black Sea; Sindi and Maeotes
4 Finno-Ugric loans

all in a vast sea of Iranian. As far as I know, the standard
interpretation of isolated occurrences of a language group A in a sea
of language group B, is that language group A was once contiguous,
but was later flooded by an invasion/immigration of language B (and
not that language group A somehow migrated through language group B).

Is this the case here? The "white-is-black-and-black-is-white"
religion of the Iranians (respective to the "Indics") might point in
that direction, or?

Torsten