Re: [tied] Re: the glottalic theory

May I add for the readers' information that, contrary to the general
tenor, this is a voice of consent.

Jens

On Thu, 14 Nov 2002, Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:

>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
> To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> Sent: Thursday, November 14, 2002 6:22 PM
> Subject: RE: [tied] Re: the glottalic theory
>
> > ... I do not believe Icelandic (etc.) preaspiration has anything to do
> with glottalization ...
>
> > ... Therefore, I cannot accept the glottalic theory for PIE ...
>
> I can't buy the theory that the glottalisation of postvocalic or
> intervocalic voiceless stops in English is an ancient phenomenon. The
> near-absence of glottalisation from "extraterritorial Englishes" (not
> only North American English but also, more surprisingly, Australian
> English, with is otherwise para-Estuarine phonetics) suggests that it
> became widespread very recently, perhaps during the 19th century. A
> hundred years ago it was reportedly more common in Scotland and northern
> England than, say, in London.
>
> Piotr
>
>
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