Re: the glottalic theory

--- In cybalist@..., Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen <jer@...> wrote:

> Guys, you can't mean this. The Danish stød rule is very simple and

of no

> consequence for IE. The stød is found in words that were

monosyllabic in

> Old Norse and so corresponds to accent 1 in Swedish and Norwegian.
> However, the stød is not found in all old monosyllables, for a the

modern

> form has to contain a certain amount of sonority to be able to keep

the

> stød. There must be either a long vowel (that in itself is enough),

or a

> vowel followed by two consonants the first of which is voiced.

Thus, there

> is no stød in tak, lap, kat, ven, øl, tal, hul, sted which have

short

> vowels followed by only a single consonant, nor is there one in

mark,

> bark, stærk, stork, skarp where the -r- used to be voiceless (and
> dialectally still is), but there is one in mæl?k, fol?k, mun?k, bæn?

k,

> hjæl?p where the sonant was always voiced. A short vowel followed

by an

> originally long consonant which is now voiced produces stød: van?d,

lan?d,

> man?d (ON acc. vatn, land, mann). Long vowels have stød: sko?, tå?,

fæ?,

> sky?, sø?, sne?. Some have a long vowel from a short vowel which was
> lengthened in an open syllable in the paradigm: da?g from da:ge, sa?

l from

> sa:le. Due to later anaptyxis, some are not mosyllabic any more,

but still

> have the stød: ag?er (akr), fød?der (fø:tr 'feet'), hæn?der (hendr
> 'hands'). Where the same schwa product has been caused by the

weakening of

> a full vowel there is no stød: koner (konar 'wives', kalder (kallar
> 'calls'), hænder (hendir 'occurs'). The vowels of old enclitic

article

> count as zero, hence stød in venn?en 'the friend', hull?et 'the

hole',

> even hænd?erne 'the hands'. Some non-adjacent dialects of Sjælland

to the

> north and south of the Copenhagen standard area agree in having

stød also

> if a short consonant is followed by a cluster of a voiceless plus a

voiced

> consonant: sæ'tter (ON setr 'sets'), næ?tter (nettr 'nights'), li?

gger

> (ligr 'is lying', -gg- being today a voiceless stop). All of this
> indicates that the stød is the Danish development of whatever

produced

> accent 1 in the other languages, and that it was probably once

present in

> all words that had only one full vowel. Thus, where the Old Norse

wordform

> is already known, the etymological value of the Danish stød is zero.
>
> Jens

That is obviously true if the occurrence of voiced vs unvoiced liquid
is derivable from something earlier.

BTW why do my postings to Austronesian disappear into thin air?

Torsten