--- In cybalist@..., ana martín martínez <ana_martin2001@...> wrote:
> > >Might this have been a Castillian attempt to (re)assert the
> > >independence of their language from Catalan?>
>
> why would they want to do it? It's the first time I hear about this
> argument. Could anybody give any resources on this topic?
>
> ana
>
It was an idea I had some time back, that some instances of language
change should be seen not in isolation, but as induced by two
languages competing for loyalty. There are similar examples in the
history of Swedish restoring final -a for Danish-influenced -&
(schwa) after Sweden under Gustav Vasa broke loose from the Danish-
led Kalmar union, as I mention in
http://www.angelfire.com/rant/tgpedersen/Shibbolethisation.html
Torsten