Re: [tied] Re: a story about Galia

----- Original Message -----
From: "Amedeo Amendola" <amedeo_a_2002@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, October 18, 2002 6:12 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: a story about Galia


>For example, many words and expressions still used in
> south Italy reflect the Oscan/Hittite language: patrita;
fratita;
> fratima;... for "your father; your brother; my brother"...

[Moeller]
you will have the cognate expresions in romanian for words
which shows relations within the family
frati-tu, fratim-miu for / your brother, my brother)

One thing to remember is that the population in Europe --
say, 2300
> years ago was relatively small.... the Oscans, the Latins,
etc. ,
> were immigrants at some earlier un-established date. It may
be true
> that the earlier subtratum involved Peslagians, with
linguistic
> kinships to the Etruscans -- as some toponyms suggest. (All
this has
> to be explored.)Non-Aryan speaking peoples apparently formed
a
> language family. Their "Caucasian" languages included
> Etruscan,Sardinian, Peslagian, the Albanian Substratum,
Lydian or
> substratum thereof, etc. The cultural kinship of the
Etruscans and
> the Urartians leads one to explore their languages, as to
whether
> they have any kinship.

[Moeller] I am not so sure if the substratum from albanians ,
romanians is to be put in the same boot with etruscan or other
non IE languages. The studies made until now shows that this
substratum belong to IE languages, but the studies made until
now did not tried to show if these words from substratum work
like italic or celtic or slavic or sanskrit or hitite or
whatever another IE language
>
> So, south of the northern part of the Caspian Sea (about 46
> latitude), there were at least two broad families of
languages,
> the "Caucasians" and the "Wine semi-Aryan" ones, with their
own
> evolutions. North of this parallel there were "Beer
semi-Aryan" ones
> and other families. Don't laugh yet!!! The fact is that I
don't
> believe in a proto-Indo-European language, for
methodological reasons
> I have explained elsewhere:

[Moeller]I do not laugh. Ancient testimonies from time of
Roman Empire and greek speaks about what me makes to see it as
indices for a very common language in teh south area of
Europe.And the IE did not made big progresses from Pokorny
time until today. Somewhere are some things they do not
exactls work or the rules for it are still obscure. I am very
open to any ideeas and I will not wonder if tomorow there will
be another explanation.
Just as matter of fact. Is there just in the cristian world
the story about " a comon language --See Babel Turm) or the
asiatic, amerindian populations have too a such story in thier
culture?