Re: [tied] Re: Underlying Circumflex in Greek

>The present infinitive
>active <pheúgein> /pHeúgein/ v. 2nd aorist infinitive active
><phugeîn> /pHugéin/. I find it very hard to believe that the 2nd
>aorist active infinitive is a contraction but that the present
>infinitive active is not.

Both are contractions of e-en. The present infinitive takes recessive
accent [pheu' -ge-en] and the aorist does not (perhaps because it is zero
grade) [phu-ge'-en]. Hence the difference in outcomes.

Peter