Miguel to Jens:
>And for instance in Latin -ginti/-ginta we not only do not have aspiration
>(I mean elsewhere, of course, not in Latin itself), but we have *d > *h1
>and *h1k > g, which is more readily explained by /?/.
So... maybe *h1 was a voiced glottal stop. That would explain why
*?k > *g, just as *piph3- becomes *pib-... Hehehe, I'm being ironic, of
course. Don't mind me, jus' nailin' the coffin >:)
As for the *-h1kont- example, this is only assuming that *h1 is actually
there so this just makes for a circular arguement I'm afraid. Examples
showing aspiration are harder to deny than the uncertainty of *-h1kont-.
- gLeN
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