Dear Piotr,
Thank you for your explanation.
But, I still have questions:
Why in some cases palatalisation happened in Dalarne (K-TS)
but in the standard Swedish dialect it did not happened (K).
How do you explain that in some Indoeuropean languages
palatalisation happened, but in some IE languages, under
the same conditions it did not happened?
Did not the various psychophysical attributes of the population resulted
with the various forms of palatalisation?
Why the sounds palatalized in the last 1000-2000 years,
and not at the beginning of the forming of the languages?
How do you explain the difference between stress and accent dialect,
if not as a consequence of a different genetic origin?
Is there some other explanation for the nasal speech, than the explanation
that the specific physical shape of the speech apparate, when the greater
quantity of the air goes through the nose, than through the mouth?
Sweden (Dalarna) cranial index:
http://users.net.yu/~tara/kindexsved.gif (10,6 kb)
Milos Bogdanovic