Re: [tied] The phonetic value of PIE *h3 and the 'drink' root.

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 14225
Date: 2002-08-04

On Sun, 04 Aug 2002 04:13:07 +0000, "Glen Gordon"
<glengordon01@...> wrote:

>>Obviously, the quality of the root vowel here was /o/. However, it cannot
>>be the "same" /o/ (i.e. it's very likely to have a different origin) as the
>>one that alternates with "zero-grade" /e/ (*wódr ~
>>*wédns (< **wedénos), *pó:ds ~ *péds (< **pedés)).
>Ugh. This is painfully simple. The rule is that the
>root CANNOT lose its syllabicity within a paradigm.

That is simply not true. When *pek^u- "cattle" becomes *pk^u-, I
suppose you might still claim that the *u is part of the root. When
*h1es- "to be" becomes *h1s-, you can claim that the *h1 becomes
syllabic *&1 (but then why does Latin have an assylabic root in sum,
sumus, sunt?). But there are many many more examples which are
inescapable. What about *segh- > *sgh- (Grk. aorist e-skh-on "I
had")? What's syllabic about the root in *ei- > *y- (Skt. y-ánti
"they go")?

Miguel Carrasquer Vidal