Re: [tied] Re: the all-from-sanskritists

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 14090
Date: 2002-07-20

To be as strict as possible, the _PIE root_ is *{bHeudH} with the ablaut allomorphs *bHoudH- and *bHudH-, whereas the _Sanskrit_ base is {budH} with the normal ablaut allomorphs /budH-/ and /bodH-/, vrddhied /bHaudH-/, plus /bud-/, /bod-/, /bHut-/ and /bHot-/ produced by processes that shift aspiration in Sanskrit (you may refer back to the discussion of Grassmann's and Bartholomae's Laws on Cybalist).
Of course, historically speaking, *bHudH-to- > buddHa-, but synchronically in Old Indic we have {budH} + -ta- -> buddHa-.
A root is an unanalysable lexical morpheme. As long as you are aware of the morphological derivation of /buddHa-/, it consists (synchronically) of a root plus a suffix. If the derivation is no longer a productive process, the internal structure of the word is obliterated and we get monomorphemic Buddha (as in English, whose speakers are not aware of Sanskrit word-formation rules).
----- Original Message -----
From: anthonyappleyard
Sent: Saturday, July 20, 2002 3:23 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: the all-from-sanskritists

Someone wrote:-
> But in the modern context, isn't "buddha" the root, strictly
> speaking? (But no big diff anyway!)

I thought that Skt. [buddha] came from [bhudh-ta-] and is a perfect
past participle of the same root seen in Greek [peuthomai]. That
means that "Buddha" amd "python" come from the same PIE root!

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