[tied] Re: Europeans descend from Basques...

To my point

> >Given that Pre PIE and Tyrrhenian in your schema are related, and
> >given that historically Tyrrhenian was located in the Mediterranean
> >and Aegean area, does it not make better sense for a movement from
> >the Aegean and Mediterranean into the Balkans, with the general

tide of

> >demic movements 7-5000 BCE, rather than against them?

Glen wrote

> However, if the Mediterranean was the centre of busy trade during
> the Neolithic, wouldn't we find various peoples, cultures and
> languages congregating to this area? Of course then, when all
> is said and done and history dawns, everybody's huddled in and
> around the Balkans as if pulled by an immense gravity well that
> no longer exists.

Sorry Glen, the Mediterranean during the neolithic was not a well,
sucking in peoples. Rather it was a fountain out of which area they
came. Your Indo-European and Tyrrhenian people seem to have been
amazing people in that they could move in the opposite direction that
everyone else was going. You seem to be proposing a mechanism
identical to one by which the Australian Aboriginal languages would
have moved into England when the Anglo-Celts were colonising
Australia! To me it makes no sense.

Regards

John