Re: [tied] Re: Why India?

> --- In cybalist@..., "Gerry Reinhart-Waller" <waluk@...> wrote:
> > I'm butting in too. I can't figure out how anyone can associate
> the spread of IE with agriculture.
>
> Masica's language X is a hypothesis premised on the presence
> of 'agricultural' terms which do not seem to have PIE roots.
>
> During the ice age, ca. between 18000 to 10,000 Carbon-14 years ago,
> a substantial part of northern Europe was filled with ice-sheets
> where not a grass could grow, hence could not have supported cattle
> or people settling in there.
>
> Au contraire, Bha_rata, that is India WAS habitable, together with
> most of south- and south-east asia. The monsoons began about ca.
> 10000 years ago together with deglaciation in the Himalayas which led
> to emergence of some perennial rivers, bringing in alluvium to
> support domestication of crops.
>

The same could be applayed for the carpathian - donau area of Europe at that
time.Here too, 10.000 yeas ago was no ice and a propice clima for humans.
Just from geografik point of view..

Best Regards

a: moeller