Re: [tied] Re: Why India?

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 13339
Date: 2002-04-18

One advantage of that theory is that the IE languages take a "free ride" on the spread of Neolithic agriculture. Their expansion in most of Europe requires no additional explanation, since the idea is that the spread of the Linear Pottery carriers in the sixth millennium (the very first farmers north of the Balkan region) already set the stage for the Indo-Europeanisation of the North European Plain (more or less from the Rhein to the Dniester). The relatively great linguistic differentiation of the European branches and the arrangement of early areal groupings can also be explained in a natural way.
 
The initial distribution of the farming communities was not particularly dense except along rivers and streams (though there were villages inhabited by more than a hundred people and within regional clusters the distance to the nearest settlement was usually less than one kilometre). The advantage that IE had at that stage was its wide distribution; it's quite possible that it became a language of wider communication used by the pre-agricultural population as well, being the language associated with cultural and technological innovations (in general, a previously unknown way of life). With improved techniques of agriculture and stock-breeding, the farming population increased and the local hunters-gatherers either experimented with innovations on their own, eventually starting new Neolithic tendencies (as in the case of the Ertebølle phenomenon), or were gradually assimilated culturally and linguistically, leaving no trace other than their contribution to the biological make-up of the farming population, which must have been considerable, as DNA studies demonstrate.
 
What requires an explanation is the transition (in relative rather than absolute terms) from settled farming to transhumant pastoralism in the eastern part of the IE-speaking area and the resultant Indo-Europeanisation of the Pontic steppes. This process ought to have started about 3000 BC at the latest, presumably as some kind of socio-political and cultural interaction in the border zone between the eastern Indo-Europeans and the pre-IE peoples of the steppes, with the former becoming linguistically dominant. The historically most important result of that encounter was the emergence of the Indo-Iranian group, which eventually expanded to the east and to the south -- beyond the Volga and into Central Asia.
 
Piotr
 
 
----- Original Message -----
From: Håkan Lindgren
To: Cybalist
Sent: Wednesday, April 17, 2002 8:52 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Why India?

Sorry if I barge into this discussion with a beginner's level question. One of the postings attracted my attention.
 
Does the spread of IE languages in Europe follow  some kind of pattern that allows us to associate it with the spread of agriculture? I mean, do we have any evidence that these two things happened roughly at the same time?
 
I admit that my knowledge of prehistoric Europe is vague at best, but weren't there farmers in Europe before the advent of IE languages?