Re: [tied] Re: Why India?

----- Original Message -----
From: kalyan97 <kalyan97@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Wednesday, April 17, 2002 9:10 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: Why India?


> --- In cybalist@..., "Gerry Reinhart-Waller" <waluk@...> wrote:
> > I'm butting in too. I can't figure out how anyone can associate
> the spread of IE with agriculture.
>
> Masica's language X is a hypothesis premised on the presence
> of 'agricultural' terms which do not seem to have PIE roots.

Sorry. I'm new (or old) to this game. Who is Masica and what is "language
X"? Just because "agriculturel terms" exist in one language (IE for
example) doesn't mean they were derived within the IE language family (could
have been borrowed from one of the other familes).

Best wishes,
Gerry Reinhart-Waller


> During the ice age, ca. between 18000 to 10,000 Carbon-14 years ago,
> a substantial part of northern Europe was filled with ice-sheets
> where not a grass could grow, hence could not have supported cattle
> or people settling in there.
>
> Au contraire, Bha_rata, that is India WAS habitable, together with
> most of south- and south-east asia. The monsoons began about ca.
> 10000 years ago together with deglaciation in the Himalayas which led
> to emergence of some perennial rivers, bringing in alluvium to
> support domestication of crops.
>
> One item for future PIE studies: The story of the language evolution
> together with organized farming using bronze-age tools has not yet
> been fully told.
>
>
>
>
>
> Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
>
>