Re: OIT and Atlantis

--- In cybalist@..., "wtsdv" <liberty@...> wrote:

> I wouldn't be surprised if a large portion of Proto-Indo-Iranian
> verse could have evolved into Vedic without effecting the meter.
> However in addition to phonetic change there is also analogical,
> and the new analogical forms wouldn't necessarily have preserved
> the meter. There is also semantic shift that would make nonsense
> of the texts if words that had acquired a different meaning were
> left in place, or tend to alter the meter if replaced with words
> with the proper meaning. ...

Perhaps Rigvedic as we see it, does have Common Indo-Aryan rules of
usage of words and inflections, and as generations passed, Rigveda
chanting more and more preserved older states of the language,
comared to current spoken usage. Compare Rigvedic with Yajurvedic or
Atharvevedic for suc things as which infinitive suffix is used the
most. suspect that the later Vedas were composed after alphabetic
writing came to India and thus the total bulk of literature was no
more limited to the amount that could be remembered and transmitted
orally each generation.