Re: [tied] Re: Post-Gothic "Getic" fantasies: the source(s)

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@..., george knysh <gknysh@...>
> wrote:
> >
> > --- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
> > > --- In cybalist@..., george knysh <gknysh@...>
> > > > Therefore, unless and until new evidence
> emerges,
> > > the
> > > > equation Goths=Getae should be attributed to
> > > Jerome,
> > > > writing in Bethlehem in the very late 4th c.
> AD.
> > > >
> > >
> > >(Torsten) I think I will take issue with your
> "cannot
> > mean
> > > anything else" that
> > > that Jerome made the story up, based on things
> he
> > > thought he had
> > > read. It is not "as simple as that". The really
> > > simple interpretation
> > > of Jerome's words is to read what he wrote,
> namely
> > > that he read the
> > > Goths=Getae equation in other writers, which
> puts
> > > the "theory" before
> > > 390 CE.
> >
> > *****GK: I agree fully that one needs to read what
> > Jerome wrote. Now what he wrote was not, as you
> put
> > it,
> > that he "read the Goths=Getae equation in other
> > writers". What he wrote is that "ALL LEARNED MEN
> IN
> > THE PAST" allegedly made that equation. Now this
> is
> > clearly not the case, independently of Varro and
> some
> > others (we don't know what they wrote), since we
> know
> > very well that people Jerome undoubtedly
> considered
> > "learned men (of) the past", viz., Herodotus,
> Pliny,
> > and many others did not make the equation. That
> being
> > so we must interpret Jerome to mean that these
> learned
> > men talked about the Getae (which they did), and
> it is
> > HIS interpretation that by Getae they meant the
> Goths.
> > It really is as simple as that Torsten.*******
> >
> > What Haywards "suggests" can hardly count as
> > > evidence.
> > >
> > > Torsten
> > >
> > >
> > >
> >
> >
> "Must"? Another interpretation is that he meant that
> whenever a
> learned man of the past mentioned both ethnonyms,
> that eruditus
> asserted that they designated the same people?
>
> Torsten

*******GK:(new) That won't work either Torsten. In the
first place I know of no interpreter of Jerome who
understood his meaning as you do. in the second place,
even if we were to allow this idiosyncratic stretch
for the context of "all" we would be faced with
insuperable difficulties. Pliny and Strabo were
certainly both "learned men". They both mentioned
Goths and Getae. They did not identify them. Sorry,
but we're looking at another dead horse here.******

>
>
>

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