From: michael_donne
Message: 12929
Date: 2002-03-29
>For example, PIE *oi is reflected as Skt. e [e:],Is there any reason it can't have gone from e > oi, ai, etc. Apart
>Gk. oi, but also Balt. *ai, OIr. oi/oe,
>OLat. oe, Gmc. *ai, Av. ai.<
>The vowel was monophthongised in some languagesHow are they different from *e?
>(e.g. > Slavic *e^, Arm. e:
>[both different from inherited *e]<, Welsh u, Mod.Gk. i)<
> but in such cases there is sufficient evidence of its derivationfrom an older diphthong<
>As regards the comparative aspect, Skt. and correspond toWhat alphabet are the Mitanni texts in? Cuneiform? Did it distinguish
>diphthongal *ai and *au in Iranian and even in Mitanni
>Indo-Aryan (Mit.IA aika- = Skt. eka-),
>And do learn something about historicalAs you may have noticed most all of the threads I start center around
>linguistics before you question its methods and results;
>it's putting the cart before the horse if youWell you see, I just want to steal a few gems from the seat of the
>don't quite know what you are arguing against.
>they tended toWell at least I'm in good company. :-)
>confuse vowel and syllable quantity (the Greeks, if that's any
>comfort, were still less clear about the difference).
> Do you know of any really long lists of where this happens plus anyexceptions?
>See the relevant handbooks. Too little space here.The handbooks don't really cover this in enough detail. I'd like to
>Vedic (as well as Proto-Iranian) /a/ does not derivewith the proof: the releveant facts have been presented
>directly from it, but from the merger of _more recent_
>(but still PIE) *e, *o and *a. I won't bore the list >
>more than once, and anyone interested in them may search the archive.Do you have any tips for what we should search the archives for? This
>which I suppose means that if only prof. Misra would admit of anCould you please elaborate on why this is so important and also in
>earlier stage of Sanskrit where some a's were pronounced as more
>close than the rest, European linguists would have to take him more
>seriously.
>(the contrast between back and front "a" must have existedNuristani, etc.
>at the time the IIr. velar palatalisations took place),
> and is not so much an earlier stage of Sanskrit as a
>form of pre-Sanskrit (and pre-Avestan, pre-Old Persian, pre-
>Misra apparently once subscribed to the scientifically-sound view.Misra passed away some time ago. Also, please do not automatically
>It makes you wonder if he hasn't being motivated by the present
>political atmosphere in India, especially when we hear such
>disturbing news as that of N. S. Rajaram's inclusion in the Indian
>Council of Historical Research.
>He would also have to admit that some a's were more rounded(allowing for
>PIE /o/ > Skt long /a:/ in open syllables). He would also have toadmit
>quite a bunch of other stuff!Can you list a few more of the things he would have to admit. This is