Re: Sanskrit and e, a, o

--- In cybalist@..., "kalyan97" <kalyan97@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@..., "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
> > > According to the good old "Sanskrit consonants and Greek
> vowels" > rule, PIE had a vowel (how come this "Ablaut vowel"

doesn't

> have a > name?) which was realised as e/o/nothing.
>
> How about calling it Vedic a.

If interpreted as

"How about identifying it with Vedic a", the answer is:

PIE ä/a/nothing > Sanskrit a/a/nothing

which I suppose means that if only prof. Misra would admit of an
earlier stage of Sanskrit where some a's were pronounced as more
close than the rest, European linguists would have to take him more
seriously.

Torsten