[tied] Re: Why is PIE more centum than satem?

--- In cybalist@..., "michael_donne" <michael_donne@...> wrote:

> In the transition from PIE *k > satem 's' was there any role of the
> Sanskrit 'ks'/Persian 'x' since it seems to combine both sounds?

These are (somewhat arcane) post-Satem developments, which went
different ways in Indo-Aryan and Iranian. *k(W)s, *tk (*kT), *k^s,
*tk^ (*k^T) and even *dg^H (*g^HD) fell together in Indo-Aryan
as /ks./, while Iranian kept them partly different: *k^s/*k^T > *cs^

> *s's^ > *s^ (as in Ir. *s^aiti vs. Skt. ks.eti 'he lives'), *ks/*kT
> ks^ > *xs^ (*xs^aya- vs. Skt. ks.aya-), *g^HD > *jH- > Av. z (as in

zam-/z&m- 'earth' vs. Skt. ks.am-).

We also have *sk^ > Skt. (c)ch, OPer. T, Av. s.

Piotr