Re: Why is PIE more centum than satem?

>This must mean that the sounds in question were originally (velar or

palatal) *stops* One may choose to notate *c, *J

Is it possible that PIE had the 'ch' or 'ja' sound for *k^?
Is that how *k^ is pronounced?
(using Eng, Ger, French or Skt as examples?)
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One person said:

>In the centum languages *k^ is
>always /k/

Another said:

>The satem languages show a single phoneme */k/,
>where the centum group
>show both *k and *kw.

Do these contradict each other?

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>So we must assume that PIE had
>the centum distinction of *k and *kw.
>we assume that PIE had the satem distinction
>of *k and */?/ >*s'...
>We then represent this sound as *k'.

So we've got 3 PIE sounds: *k, *kw and *k'?

I assume *k is a normal "k" sound (as imprecise as that is)
what does *k' sound like using Eng, Ger, French or Skt as examples?