Re: [tied] Why is PIE more centum than satem?

--- Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:
my

> chronology implies that most of the other IE
> branches must have existed in the second millennium
> BC. The early date of the Anatolian/non-Anatolian
> split only reflects my opinion that the Anatolian
> branch is more distantly related to the other
> branches of the family than they are related to one
> another. It does _not_ mean that Hittite must be
> more similar to PIE than any other language. All
> languages spoken at the same time are equally "old".
>
> Piotr

*****GK: That is certainly the case. On the other
hand, not all languages spoken at the same time
(whether the context is 1500 BC or 2002 AD) are
equally similar to PIE ? It would be interesting to
know which of the groups attested in the 2nd
millennium BC are closest to the reconstructed PIE.
***


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