Re: [tied] Why is PIE more centum than satem?

On Sat, 02 Feb 2002 04:26:24 -0000, "michael_donne"
<michael_donne@...> wrote:

>I notice that pretty much all of the PIE words are reconstructed with
>a k or k' instead of a s? Why is that?

A development k > s is much more common than a development s > k, so
*k(^) would be the preferred reconstruction even if there were no
other evidence available (which there is, but it's almost six in the
morning here).

>If the centum/satem divide is now considered to be from about the
>same time and if the IndoIranian languages are among the oldest
>recorded (if not the oldest if Hittite is questioned a la Beekes),

How does Beekes question Hittite?

>then is it possible that PIE may have had some satem forms of these
>words instead?

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...