So putting together the various points made by Piotr,
Miguel, and Sergei, would it be possible to conclude:
(a)That the Slavic forms cannot be derived from a
palatalization process occurring on the basis of the
proto-Germanic *kuningaz, but necessarily of some
LATER rendition (expected Gothic or early West
Germanic);
(b)That although Krivichian was basically not affected
by the 2nd palatalization, it DID accept the Common
Slavic rendition of the "king" word.
If these conclusions are adequate, some historical
inferences might be possible.
__________________________________________________
Do You Yahoo!?
Great stuff seeking new owners in Yahoo! Auctions!
http://auctions.yahoo.com