From: guto rhys
Message: 12182
Date: 2002-01-29
Piotr recently mentioned that a Celtic dialect survived in Switzerland (long?) after other dialects had been replaced by Latin and Germanic. From what source is this theory deduced? I would be very interested.
Again - initial mutations occur in all Goedelic and Brythonic languages. There appears to be no evidence for this prior to the 5th century or so. By then these two dialects had long diverged, apparently. Are these features homologous. Do they have there origin in the common grammar which ultimately resulted in these changes or do they represent a feature of �classical� Celtic which simply has not been recorded? Or could there have been influence from one language to another. It seems strange, or perhaps intriguing that two independant languages develop such a rare feature independantly of each other even though there common morphology (suffixes especially) could facilitate this.