From: tgpedersen
Message: 12066
Date: 2002-01-16
>When I say
> Torsten:
> >Not that I would disagree, but what happens if we assume with Cuny
> >and Glen Gordon that what is traditionally reconstructed as PIE <o>
> >and <e> was actually <a> and <&>? We'd then have for Indo-Iranian
> ><&> -> <a> and for Greek etc <a> -> <o> and <&> -> <e>. Suddenly II
> >looks closer to PIE than Greek etc.
>
> That's not nice. You're now twisting my nice little theories :(
> that *e derives from earlier *& and *o from *a, I distinctly amtalking
> about a _Pre-IE_ stage, not IE itself. IE most certainly seems tohave
> had *e and *o and I personally don't question it since Germanic,Anatolian
> and Greek all appear to reflect *e (and not schwa).Call it karma. I thought it was amusing that you should agree with
>
> - love gLeN