Re: Boiotia < *bhoi- ?

--- In cybalist@..., David Sánchez <davius_sanctex@...> wrote:

>
> > Why does Strabo equate <u> = <i>? Doesn't look right.
>
> Possiblyof the phonetic change:
> Classical Greek <u> [y] > Hellenistic Greek [i].

That early? I believe I heard that in Modern Greek the letters u and
i are both pronounced [i]. Had they merged already then? Since if so,
Strabo's <brig-> and <brug-> peoples would be identically pronounced
and thus, presumably also identical?

Torsten