--- Miguel Carrasquer Vidal <
mcv@...> wrote: (a lot
of interesting and withwhile things for which I thank
him). GK=A few queries.
MCV: This
> means that a part of IE (which was later to migrate
> back into
> Anatolia) was present in the Balkans ca. 5500 BC. It
> doesn't mean that
> _all_ Balkan languages were PIE. Some of them may
> have been more
> distantly related to PIE, others not related at all.
>
> I like to think of my theory as "Renfrew +
> linguistics".
*****GK: How necessary to this theory is the notion of
colonization? Is it endemic or sporadic and can you
tell when this needs to be postulated and when not?
For instance you say:
>MCV: There was a
> "break" in the expansion of Neolithic techniques to
> the Western
> Mediterranean (the techniques were adopted by
> locals, without
> invasion/infiltration/etc. from outside).
And a little further you say:
MCV: There was ... a physical break between the ones
that started to
> colonize the
> European lowlands and those that stayed behind in
> the Balkans (which
> is why we have a clear linguistic division --not a
> "break"-- between
> Anatolian & the rest of PIE).
Might a model of "acculturation" not work here as well
as for the W. Med.? And if not why not?*******
The rest of your message was truncated in the reply so
I'll have to write out the query i.o. placing it in
context. When I tried to use the "30% or so" analogy I
did not mean to convey an idea of some sort of hodge
podge (surely Germanic is not that); but a situation
where the adoption of new technologies is accompanied
by linguistic influences so major that they lead to
the emergence of a new language to which both "donors"
(whether or not these are present in abundance) and
"recipients" contribute. Thus could ancient IE have
been such a combination, which, once established began
to "live on its own" with further modifications not as
global and intensive as the ones which originally
might have produced it?
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