> >He also points out that /K/ was used before /a/ in older Latin. This
> I checked with Møller (of course) and found (surprise!) that he had
> raised the question himself, whether (the "vor-indogermanisch-
> semitisch" ancestor of) plain /k/ didn't cause the following /e/ in
> Latin to become /a/.
> H. Møller:
> "Semitisch und Indogermanisch"
> Kopenhagen 1906
> p 231 footnote
> and who am I to argue?