Re: [tied] Re: Slavic peoples and places

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 7623
Date: 2001-06-14

Rather recently. The change is not quite complete in Ukrainian and Belarusian, where the syllable-final pronunciation is [w]. The Proto-Slavic pronunciation of *v was clearly less consonantal than the standard transcription suggests -- either [w] or [B]. In many Slavic languages /v/ still patterns with sonorants as regards voicing assimilation, phonotactic constraints, etc.
Of course Classical Latin had [w] for consonantal <u/v>. Some Indologists whose opinion I have asked say that Old Indic <v> was also bilabial and semivocalic rather than fricative. There are numerous parallels between Romance and Middle Indo-Aryan initial strengthening and medial lenition: Skt ya- > MIA ja- (here <j> = palatal affricate), vasanta > basanta ([w] > [B]
> [b]).
(As regards lenition, Indo-Aryan languages show developments like mata- > mada > maa -- just like French.)
Interestingly, English seems to be the sole IE language to have preserved the "original" PIE pronunciation of *w in prevocalic positions.
----- Original Message -----
From: tgpedersen@...
Sent: Thursday, June 14, 2001 11:32 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: Slavic peoples and places

Since Slavic is IE at some time in the development there must have been w > v. When?