Re: [tied] Re: O!

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 7348
Date: 2001-05-22

Ah, yes. It's quite possible (though hard to prove beyond doubt) that the various European "vocative O's" are due to Greek and Latin influence in historical times. Sanskrit, at any rate, uses no O's, just plain vocatives.
----- Original Message -----
From: Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
Sent: Tuesday, May 22, 2001 1:14 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: O!

And the two cannot be related through regular sound change (Greek o: =
Slavic a).