Re: [tied] Initial d/t alternation

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 6240
Date: 2001-02-28

There isn't much to take apart yet. In this application of Lubotsky's rather controversial hysterodynamic scheme I fail to see what *dh2-en- > *d'an- > *tan- is supposed to stand for. The alternation t-/s- in Greek reflects the different syllabification of *u/*w (*tu-/*tw- > tu-/s-). But how does *dh2- become *t-, and what for? (I mean, what particular facts do you want to explain in this way?). Knowing your patriotic preoccupation with Dan-, I suppose you really meant to write *dh2en-
> *dHan- > Germanic *dan-. What does *deh2-n- mean? What's the fully
inflected form of each case, by the way, and what IE reflexes do they account for?
 
Piotr
 
 
----- Original Message -----
From: tgpedersen@...
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Wednesday, February 28, 2001 8:19 PM
Subject: [tied] Initial d/t alternation

Nom. *deH2-n- > *da:n-
Acc. *dH2-en- > *d'an- > *tan-
Gen. *dH2-n-

where /d/ is plain (non-aspirated, non-glottalic, as Kordtland proposed).
Or, if an initial *s-/*t- alternation (in Greek) is OK, why isn't *d-/*t-?
(I know it doesn't quite follow the pattern, due to the number of consonants (3 vs. 4). But anyway!)
Hope this is "definite" enough. Feel free to take it apart.


Torsten